[2nd Draft]
INTRODUCTORY REMARKS
When
one says “British philosophy” one may refer to David Hume or Bertrand Russell.
When another says “French philosophy” one may refer to Rene Descartes or
Jean-Paul Sartre. For both there are a number of commentators who have written
on them. Also, one can distinguish between the philosophers and the
commentators on the philosophers. One may even add that there are Humeans,
Russellians, Cartesians and Sartreans; people who subscribe to their ideas but
may or may not be commentators themselves.
It
is relatively easy, though sometimes facile, to do some categorizing like the
previous examples. These ignore some important issues. There are the
interrelated and interpenetrating issues of methods or approaches. For
instance, the term “continental philosophy” is problematic if one talks only of
geography1. This is because the Vienna Circle is geographically in the
Continent. Wittgenstein is Austrian and Carnap is German but both are hardly
considered “continental philosophers.” What may be characterized by
“Continental” is the method and sometimes the accompanying theoretical
assumptions. Yet by this time some personalities in philosophy, both Western
and Eastern, can easily be identified.
But
what about “Filipino philosophy”? Who are the personalities that one may cite?
I am not yet even talking of methods or approaches like in the previous
examples. If one were to look at the
literature of “Filipino philosophy” then one of the personalities is Leonardo
Mercado. That Mercado is the pioneer in what has been called “Filipino
philosophy” is acknowledged by Mercado (1985: 61) himself with his “A
philosophy of Filipino time” published in 1972. The contention of this paper is
that while I may be able to acknowledge that Leonardo Mercado has made a
significant contribution to Filipino philosophy, and in that sense he may be
regarded as a Filipino philosopher, Mercado himself cannot. If anything, this
is detrimental to the progress of “Filipino philosophy”, whether as to its
status as philosophy or the debates within it.
FILIPINO PHILOSOPHY: MERCADO’S CONCEPTION
But
what is “Filipino philosophy”? Or if Mercado is the pioneer in “Filipino
philosophy”, what is his conception of Filipino philosophy? For Mercado (1985:
61) the answer to such a question is:
…Filipino
thought is understood as his world view or philosophy. It is not the philosophy
of any individual philosopher as it is in the Western tradition but rather the
philosophy of the people, its diwa or Volkgeist.
The
sense Mercado ascribes to Filipino philosophy makes it very unique. When
he speaks of the “Western tradition”, my previous examples of Hume, Russell,
Descartes and Sartre fall under this and are quite different from Mercado’s
conception. By implication, Indian, Chinese and Japanese philosophy, insofar as
there many individual philosophers in each (For example Aurobindo, Confucius
and Nishitani respectively), would not even be like Filipino philosophy. I find it puzzling that Mercado would not
find this problematic because in his conception there can be no individual
Filipino philosopher2. After all, Filipino philosophy is the
worldview of the people (Filipinos), what is called diwa.
Some
may quibble that Mercado is actually referring to “Filipino thought” and not
“Filipino philosophy.” However, Mercado (1985: 61) continues by writing that
“Filipino philosophy or the people’s diwa
is what is, not what should be.” Mercado writes this to start the idea that
Filipino philosophy has strengths and weaknesses and that it can be the “basis
for the Filipino’s development, since it is his own model.” By “what is”
Mercado, in my view, is pointing to the idea that the diwa can be better. Mercado also thinks importing Western models in
understanding Filipinos is mistaken. Mercado significantly says that, “The
result--as seen in various development attempts--has mostly been disastrous.”
I
am ignorant of the “various development attempts” that Mercado talks about.
Worse, he does not cite these attempts. More significantly is his mysterious
claim stating that such attempts have “mostly been disastrous.” If one follows Mercado’s train of thought,
regarding the role of Filipino philosophy for the Filipinos’ possible progress,
then can one have the possible negative inference? Was the adopting of “Western
models” to understand Filipinos been detrimental to the Filipinos’
progress? Perhaps, one may reduce this
question to: “What does Mercado mean by ‘disastrous’ relative to those
purported “development attempts”?
The other problem I find in
Mercado’s conception of Filipino philosophy is the difficulty of determining
the meaning of “philosophy of the people”, the diwa. What does Mercado mean by “philosophy of the
people”? If it is the philosophy of the Filipino people (and by extension there
are no individual Filipino philosophers) then are all Filipinos
philosophers? There is a pronounced difference between the claims (a) Anyone can
be a philosopher and (b) Everyone is a philosopher.
In
the case of (a), one may be referring to the history of philosophy wherein
individuals, who seemingly are from a different field, are more remembered for
their work in philosophy and as philosophers. An example would be William James
who earned a degree in medicine and was a professor of physiology, and then
later of psychology, before becoming a professor in philosophy. However, James
was acknowledged as a philosopher long before he became a professor in
philosophy. In this qualified sense, to claim (a) is to point also to the idea that
anyone has the potential to be a philosopher even if one is from a different
field.
There
are many assumptions involved in (a) but I will leave it at that3.
The point here is that it is significantly different from (b). Also, (a) can be qualified further by citing
examples in the history of philosophy. So, by saying that Filipino philosophy
is the “philosophy of the people”, the diwa of the Filipinos, how can
Mercado differentiate (a) from (b)? Are
there not countries with inhabitants that are probably older than even the
Filipinos? So why does Mercado not claim the same for these countries? That is
to say, why do they not have their own “philosophy of the people”? For some examples, why not Germany having
German philosophy in this sense? How
about China having Chinese philosophy in this sense? The Germans and Chinese as examples are not
included since there have individual philosophers only. But the Germans and
Chinese do not have, respectively a “philosophy of the people.”
who is the author?
ReplyDeleteThat would be me ;) Dennis Apolega @readingandphilo
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